# Self-Financing and Dynamically Hedged Portfolio – Robert Merton’s Option Pricing. Thought of the Day 153.0

As an alternative to the riskless hedging approach, Robert Merton derived the option pricing equation via the construction of a self-financing and dynamically hedged portfolio containing the risky asset, option and riskless asset (in the form of money market account). Let QS(t) and QV(t) denote the number of units of asset and option in the portfolio, respectively, and MS(t) and MV(t) denote the currency value of QS(t) units of asset and QV(t) units of option, respectively. The self-financing portfolio is set up with zero initial net investment cost and no additional funds are added or withdrawn afterwards. The additional units acquired for one security in the portfolio is completely financed by the sale of another security in the same portfolio. The portfolio is said to be dynamic since its composition is allowed to change over time. For notational convenience, dropping the subscript t for the asset price process St, the option value process Vt and the standard Brownian process Zt. The portfolio value at time t can be expressed as

Π(t) = MS(t) + MV(t) + M(t) = QS(t)S + QV(t)V + M(t) —– (1)

where M(t) is the currency value of the riskless asset invested in a riskless money market account. Suppose the asset price process is governed by the stochastic differential equation (1) in here, we apply the Ito lemma to obtain the differential of the option value V as:

dV = ∂V/∂t dt + ∂V/∂S dS + σ2/2 S22V/∂S2 dt = (∂V/∂t + μS ∂V/∂S σ2/2 S22V/∂S2)dt + σS ∂V/∂S dZ —– (2)

If we formally write the stochastic dynamics of V as

dV/V = μV dt + σV dZ —– (3)

then μV and σV are given by

μV = (∂V/∂t + ρS ∂V/∂S + σ2/2 S22V/∂S2)/V —– (4)

and

σV = (σS ∂V/∂S)/V —– (5)

The instantaneous currency return dΠ(t) of the above portfolio is attributed to the differential price changes of asset and option and interest accrued, and the differential changes in the amount of asset, option and money market account held. The differential of Π(t) is computed as:

dΠ(t) = [QS(t) dS + QV(t) dV + rM(t) dt] + [S dQS(t) + V dQV(t) + dM(t)] —– (6)

where rM(t)dt gives the interest amount earned from the money market account over dt and dM(t) represents the change in the money market account held due to net currency gained/lost from the sale of the underlying asset and option in the portfolio. And if the portfolio is self-financing, the sum of the last three terms in the above equation is zero. The instantaneous portfolio return dΠ(t) can then be expressed as:

dΠ(t) = QS(t) dS + QV(t) dV + rM(t) dt = MS(t) dS/S + MV(t) dV/V +  rM(t) dt —– (7)

Eliminating M(t) between (1) and (7) and expressing dS/S and dV/V in terms of their stochastic dynamics, we obtain

dΠ(t) = [(μ − r)MS(t) + (μV − r)MV(t)]dt + [σMS(t) + σV MV(t)]dZ —– (8)

How can we make the above self-financing portfolio instantaneously riskless so that its return is non-stochastic? This can be achieved by choosing an appropriate proportion of asset and option according to

σMS(t) + σV MV(t) = σS QS(t) + σS ∂V/∂S QV(t) = 0

that is, the number of units of asset and option in the self-financing portfolio must be in the ratio

QS(t)/QV(t) = -∂V/∂S —– (9)

at all times. The above ratio is time dependent, so continuous readjustment of the portfolio is necessary. We now have a dynamic replicating portfolio that is riskless and requires zero initial net investment, so the non-stochastic portfolio return dΠ(t) must be zero.

(8) becomes

0 = [(μ − r)MS(t) + (μV − r)MV(t)]dt

substituting the ratio factor in the above equation, we get

(μ − r)S ∂V/∂S = (μV − r)V —– (10)

Now substituting μfrom (4) into the above equation, we get the black-Scholes equation for V,

∂V/∂t + σ2/2 S22V/∂S2 + rS ∂V/∂S – rV = 0

Suppose we take QV(t) = −1 in the above dynamically hedged self-financing portfolio, that is, the portfolio always shorts one unit of the option. By the ratio factor, the number of units of risky asset held is always kept at the level of ∂V/∂S units, which is changing continuously over time. To maintain a self-financing hedged portfolio that constantly keeps shorting one unit of the option, we need to have both the underlying asset and the riskfree asset (money market account) in the portfolio. The net cash flow resulting in the buying/selling of the risky asset in the dynamic procedure of maintaining ∂V/∂S units of the risky asset is siphoned to the money market account.

# Haircuts and Collaterals.

In a repo-style securities financing transaction, the repo buyer or lender is exposed to the borrower’s default risk for the whole duration with a market contingent exposure, framed on a short window for default settlement. A margin period of risk (MPR) is a time period starting from the last date when margin is met to the date when the defaulting counterparty is closed out with completion of collateral asset disposal. MPR could cover a number of events or processes, including collateral valuation, margin calculation, margin call, valuation dispute and resolution, default notification and default grace period, and finally time to sell collateral to recover the lent principal and accrued interest. If the sales proceeds are not sufficient, the deficiency could be made a claim to the borrower’s estate, unless the repo is non-recourse. The lender’s exposure in a repo during the MPR is simply principal plus accrued and unpaid interest. Since the accrued and unpaid interest is usually margined at cash, repo exposure in the MPR is flat.

A flat exposure could apply to OTC derivatives as well. For an OTC netting, the mark-to-market of the derivatives could fluctuate as its underlying prices move. The derivatives exposure is formally set on the early termination date which could be days behind the point of default. The surviving counterparty, however, could have delta hedged against market factors following the default so that the derivative exposure remains a more manageable gamma exposure. For developing a collateral haircut model, what is generally assumed is a constant exposure during the MPR.

The primary driver of haircuts is asset volatility. Market liquidity risk is another significant one, as liquidation of the collateral assets might negatively impact the market, if the collateral portfolio is illiquid, large, or concentrated in certain asset sectors or classes. Market prices could be depressed, bid/ask spreads could widen, and some assets might have to be sold at a steep discount. This is particularly pronounced with private securitization and lower grade corporates, which trade infrequently and often rely on valuation services rather than actual market quotations. A haircut model therefore needs to capture liquidity risk, in addition to asset volatility.

In an idealized setting, we therefore consider a counterparty (or borrower) C’s default time at t, when the margin is last met, an MPR of u during which there is no margin posting, and the collateral assets are sold at time t+u instantaneously on the market, with a possible liquidation discount g.

Let us denote the collateral market value as B(t), exposure to the defaulting counterparty C as E(t). At time t, one share of the asset is margined properly, i.e., E(t) = (1-h)B(t), where h is a constant haircut, 1 >h ≥0. The margin agreement is assumed to have a zero minimum transfer amount. The lender would have a residual exposure (E(t) – B(t+u)(1-g))+, where g is a constant, 1 > g ≥ 0. Exposure to C is assumed flat after t. We can write the loss function from holding the collateral as follows,

L(t + u) = Et(1 – Bt+u/Bt (1 – g)/(1 – h))+ = (1 – g)Bt(1 – Bt+u/Bt (h – g)/(1 – g))+ —– (1)

Conditional on default happening at time t, the above determines a one-period loss distribution driven by asset price return B(t+u)/B(t). For repos, this loss function is slightly different from the lender’s ultimate loss which would be lessened due to a claim and recovery process. In the regulatory context, haircut is viewed as a mitigation to counterparty exposure and made independent of counterparty, so recovery from the defaulting party is not considered.

Let y = (1 – Bt+u/Bt) be the price decline. If g=0, Pr(y>h) equals to Pr(L(u)>0). There is no loss, if the price decline is less or equal to h. A first rupee loss will occur only if y > h. h thus provides a cushion before a loss is incurred. Given a target rating class’s default probability p, the first loss haircut can be written as

hp = inf{h > 0:Pr(L(u) > 0) ≤ p} —– (2)

Let VaRq denote the VaR of holding the asset, an amount which the price decline won’t exceed, given a confidence interval of q, say 99%. In light of the adoption of the expected shortfall (ES) in BASEL IV’s new market risk capital standard, we get a chance to define haircut as ES under the q-quantile,

hES = ESq = E[y|y > VaRq]

VaRq = inf{y0 > 0 : Pr(y > y0) ≤ 1 − q} —– (3)

Without the liquidity discount, hp is the same as VaRq. If haircuts are set to VaRq or hES, the market risk capital for holding the asset for the given MPR, defined as a multiple of VaR or ES, is zero. This implies that we can define a haircut to meet a minimum economic capital (EC) requirement C0,

hEC = inf{h ∈ R+: EC[L|h] ≤ C0} —– (4)

where EC is measured either as VaR or ES subtracted by expected loss (EL). For rating criteria employing EL based target per rating class, we could introduce one more definition of haircuts based on EL target L0,

hEL = inf{h ∈ R+: E[L|h] ≤ L0} —– (5)

The expected loss target L0 can be set based on EL criteria of certain designated high credit rating, whether bank internal or external. With an external rating such as Moody’s, for example, a firm can set the haircut to a level such that the expected (cumulative) loss satisfies the expected loss tolerance L0 of some predetermined Moody’s rating target, e.g., ‘Aaa’ or ‘Aa1’. In (4) and (5), loss L’s holding period does not have to be an MPR. In fact, these two definitions apply to the general trading book credit risk capital approach where the standard horizon is one year with a 99.9% confidence interval for default risk.

Different from VaRq, definitions hp, hEL, and hEC are based on a loss distribution solely generated by collateral market risk exposure. As such, we no longer apply the usual wholesale credit risk terminology of probability of default (PD) and loss given default (LGD) to determine EL as product of PD and LGD. Here EL is directly computed from a loss distribution originated from market risk and the haircut intends to be wholesale counterparty independent. For real repo transactions where repo haircuts are known to be counterparty dependent, these definitions remain fit, when the loss distribution incorporates the counterparty credit quality.

# Open Market Operations. Thought of the Day 93.0

It can be argued that it would be much more democratic if the Treasuries were allowed to borrow directly from their central bank. By electing a government on a program, we would know what deficit it intends to run and thus how much it will be willing to print, which in the long run is a debate about the possible level of inflation. Instead, it has been argued that decisions made on democratic grounds might be unstable as they are affected by elections. However, the independence of central banks is also serving the interest of commercial bankers as we argue now.

In practice, the central bank buys and sells bonds in open market operations. At least it is always doing so with short term T-bonds as part of the conventional monetary policy, and it might decide sometimes to do it as well with longer maturity T-bonds as part of the unconventional monetary policy. This blurs the lines between a model where the central bank directly finances the Treasury, and a model where this is done by commercial banks since they result in the same final situation. Indeed, before an open market operation the Treasury owes central bank money to a commercial bank, and in the final situation it owes it to the central bank itself, and the central bank money held by the commercial bank has been increased accordingly.

The commercial bank has accepted to get rid of an IOU which bears interest, in exchange of a central bank IOU which bears no interest. However the Treasury will never default on its debt, because the state also runs the central bank which can buy an infinite amount of T-bonds. Said differently, if the interest rates for short term T-bonds start to increase as the commercial banks become more and more reluctant to buy these, the central bank needs to buy as many short-term bonds as necessary to ensure the short term interest rates on T-bonds remain at the targeted level. By using these open market operations a sovereign state running a sovereign currency has the means to ensure that the banks are always willing to buy T-bonds, whatever the deficit is.

However, this system has a drawback. First when the commercial bank bought the T-bond, it had to pretend that it was worried the state might never reimburse, so as to ask for interests rates which are at least slightly higher than the interest rate at which they can borrow from the central bank, and make a profit on the difference. Of course the banks knew they would always be reimbursed, because the central bank always stands ready to buy bonds. As the interest rates departed from the target chosen by the central bank, the latter bought short term bonds to prevent the short term rate from increasing. In order to convince a commercial bank to get rid of a financial instrument which is not risky and which bears interest, the only solution is to pay more than the current value of the bond, which amounts to a decrease of the interest rate on those bonds. The bank thus makes an immediate profit instead of a larger profit later. This difference goes directly into the net worth of the banker and amounts to money creation.

To conclude, we reach the same stage as if the Treasury had sold directly its bond to the central bank, except that now we have increased by a small amount the net worth of the bankers. By first selling the bonds to the commercial banks, instead of selling directly to the central bank, the bankers were able to realize a small profit. But this profit is an immediate and easy one. So they have on one side to pretend they do not like when the Treasury goes into debt, so as to be able to ask for the highest possible interest rate, and secretly enjoy it since either they make a profit when it falls due, or even better immediately if the central bank buys the bonds to control the interest rates.

The commercial banks will always end up with a part of their assets denominated directly in central bank money, which bears no interest, and T-bonds, which bear interest. If we adopt a consolidated state point of view, where we merge the Treasury and the central bank, then the commercial banks have two types of accounts. Deposits which bear no interests, and saving accounts which generate interests, just like everybody. In order to control the interest rate, the consolidated state shifts the amounts from the interest-less to the interest-bearing account and vice-versa.

# Banking? There isn’t much to it than this anyways.

Don’t go by the innocuous sounding title, for this is at its wit alternative. The modus operandi (Oh!, how much I feel like saying modis operandi in honor of the you Indians know who?) for accumulation of wealth to parts of ‘the system’ (which, for historic reasons, we call ‘capitalists’) is banking. The ‘capitalists’ (defined as those that skim the surplus labor of others) accumulate it through the banking system. That is nearly an empty statement, since wealth = money. That is, money is the means of increasing wealth and thus one represents the other. If capitalists skim surplus labor, it means that they skim surplus money. Money is linked to (only!) banks, and thus, accumulation is in the banks.

If interest is charged, borrowers will go bankrupt. This idea can be extended. If interest is charged, all money is accumulated in banks. Or, better to say, a larger and larger fraction of money is accumulated in the banks, and kept in financial institutions. The accumulation of wealth is accumulation of money in and by banks. It can only be interesting to see whom the money belongs to.

By the way, these institutions, the capitalists naturally wanting to part with as little as possible from this money, are often in fiscal paradises. Famous are The Cayman Islands, The Bahamas, The Seychelles, etc. With the accumulated money the physical property is bought. Once again, this is an empty statement. Money represents buying power (to buy more wealth). For instance buying the means-of-production (the Marxian mathematical equation raises its head again, MoP), such as land, factories, people’s houses (which will then be rented to them; more money). Etc.

Also, a tiny fraction of the money is squandered. It is what normally draws most attention. Oil sheiks that drive golden cars, bunga-bunga parties etc. That, however, is rather insignificant, this way of re-injecting money into the system. Mostly money is used to increase capital. That is why it is an obvious truth that “When you are rich, you must be extremely stupid to become poor. When you are poor, you must be extremely talented to become rich”. When you are rich, just let the capital work for you; it will have the tendency to increase, even if it increases slower than that of your more talented neighbor.

To accelerate the effect of skimming, means of production (MoP, ‘capital’), are confiscated from everything – countries and individual people – that cannot pay the loan + interest (which is unavoidable). Or bought for a much-below market value price in a way of “Take it or leave it; either give me my money back, which I know there is no way you can, or give me all your possessions and options for confiscation of possessions of future generations as well, i.e., I’ll give you new loans (which you will also not be able to pay back, I know, but that way I’ll manage to forever take everything you will ever produce in your life and all generations after you. Slaves, obey your masters!)”

Although not essential (Marx analyzed it not like this), the banking system accelerates the condensation of wealth. It is the modus operandi. Money is accumulated. With that money, capital is bought and then the money is re-confiscated with that newly-bought capital, or by means of new loans, etc. It is a feedback system where all money and capital is condensing on a big pile. Money and capital are synonyms. Note that this pile in not necessarily a set of people. It is just ‘the system’. There is no ‘class struggle’ between rich and poor, where the latter are trying to steal/take-back the money (depending on which side of the alleged theft the person analyzing it is). It is a class struggle of people against ‘the system’.

There is only one stable final distribution: all money/capital belonging to one person or institute, one ‘entity’. That is what is called a ‘singularity’ and the only mathematical function that is stable in this case. It is called a delta-function, or Kronecker-delta function: zero everywhere, except in one point, where it is infinite, with the total integral (total money) equal to unity. In this case: all money on one big pile. All other functions are unstable.

Imagine that there are two brothers that wound up with all the money and the rest of the people are destitute and left without anything. These two brothers will then start lending things to each-other. Since they are doing this in the commercial way (having to give back more than borrowed), one of the brothers will confiscate everything from the other.
Note: There is only one way out of it, namely that the brother ‘feels sorry’ for his sibling and gives him things without anything in return, to compensate for the steady unidirectional flow of wealth….

# Sustainability of Debt

For economies with fractional reserve-generated fiat money, balancing the budget is characterized by an exponential growth D(t) ≈ D0(1 + r)t of any initial debt D0 subjected to interest r as a function of time t due to the compound interest; a fact known since antiquity. At the same time, besides default, this increasing debt can only be reduced by the following five mostly linear, measures:

(i) more income or revenue I (in the case of sovereign debt: higher taxation or higher tax base);

(ii) less spending S;

(iii) increase of borrowing L;

(iv) acquisition of external resources, and

(v) inflation; that is, devaluation of money.

Whereas (i), (ii) and (iv) without inflation are essentially measures contributing linearly (or polynomially) to the acquisition or compensation of debt, inflation also grows exponentially with time t at some (supposedly constant) rate f ≥ 1; that is, the value of an initial debt D0, without interest (r = 0), in terms of the initial values, gets reduced to F(t) = D0/ft. Conversely, the capacity of an economy to compensate debt will increase with compound inflation: for instance, the initial income or revenue I will, through adaptions, usually increase exponentially with time in an inflationary regime by Ift.

Because these are the only possibilities, we can consider such economies as closed systems (with respect to money flows), characterized by the (continuity) equation

Ift + S + L ≈ D0(1+r)t, or

L ≈ D0(1 + r)t − Ift − S.

Let us concentrate on sovereign debt and briefly discuss the fiscal, social and political options. With regards to the five ways to compensate debt the following assumptions will be made: First, in non-despotic forms of governments (e.g., representative democracies and constitutional monarchies), increases of taxation, related to (i), as well as spending cuts, related to (ii), are very unpopular, and can thus be enforced only in very limited, that is polynomial, forms.

Second, the acquisition of external resources, related to (iv), are often blocked for various obvious reasons; including military strategy limitations, and lack of opportunities. We shall therefore disregard the acquisition of external resources entirely and set A = 0.

As a consequence, without inflation (i.e., for f = 1), the increase of debt

L ≈ D0(1 + r)t − I − S

grows exponentially. This is only “felt” after trespassing a quasi-linear region for which, due to a Taylor expansion around t = 0, D(t) = D0(1 + r)t ≈ D0 + D0rt.

So, under the political and social assumptions made, compound debt without inflation is unsustainable. Furthermore, inflation, with all its inconvenient consequences and re-appropriation, seems inevitable for the continuous existence of economies based on fractional reserve generated fiat money; at least in the long run.

# Austrian Economics. Some More Further Ruminations. Part 3.

The dominant British tradition received its first serious challenge in many years when Carl Menger’s Principles of Economics was published in 1871. Menger, the founder of the Austrian School proper, resurrected the Scholastic-French approach to economics, and put it on firmer ground.

Menger spelled out the subjective basis of economic value, and fully explained, for the first time, the theory of marginal utility (the greater the number of units of a good that an individual possesses, the less he will value any given unit). In addition, Menger showed how money originates in a free market when the most marketable commodity is desired, not for consumption, but for use in trading for other goods. Menger restored economics as the science of human action based on deductive logic, and prepared the way for later theorists to counter the influence of socialist thought. Indeed, his student Friederich von Wieser strongly influenced Friedrich von Hayek’s later writings.

Menger’s admirer and follower at the University of Innsbruck, Eugen Böhm-Bawerk, took Menger’s exposition, reformulated it, and applied it to a host of new problems involving value, price, capital, and interest. His History and Critique of Interest Theories, appearing in 1884, is a sweeping account of fallacies in the history of thought and a firm defense of the idea that the interest rate is not an artificial construct but an inherent part of the market. It reflects the universal fact of “time preference,” the tendency of people to prefer satisfaction of wants sooner rather than later.

Böhm-Bawerk’s Positive Theory of Capital demonstrated that the normal rate of business profit is the interest rate. Capitalists save money, pay laborers, and wait until the final product is sold to receive profit. In addition, he demonstrated that capital is not homogeneous but an intricate and diverse structure that has a time dimension. A growing economy is not just a consequence of increased capital investment, but also of longer and longer processes of production.

Böhm-Bawerk favored policies that deferred to the ever-present reality of economic law. He regarded interventionism as an attack on market economic forces that cannot succeed in the long run. But one area where Böhm-Bawerk had not elaborated on the analysis of Menger was money, the institutional intersection of the “micro” and “macro” approach. A young Ludwig von Mises, economic advisor to the Austrian Chamber of Commerce, took on the challenge.

The result of Mises’s research was The Theory of Money and Credit, published in 1912. He spelled out how the theory of marginal utility applies to money, and laid out his “regression theorem,” showing that money not only originates in the market, but must always do so. Drawing on the British Currency School, Knut Wicksell’s theory of interest rates, and Böhm-Bawerk’s theory of the structure of production, Mises presented the broad outline of the Austrian theory of the business cycle. To note once again, his was not a theory of the physical capital, but a theory of interest. So, even if some of the economists of the school had covered through their writings the complexities of the structure of production, that wasn’t really their research object, but rather what their concentration really opted for was interest phenomenon, trade cycle or entrepreneurship.

Ludwig Lachmann in his Capital and its Structure is most serious about the complexities of the structure of production, especially on the heterogeneity of physical capital not only in relation to successive stages of production, but denying any possibility of systematically categorizing, measuring or aggregating capital goods. But, does that mean he is from a different camp? Evidently not, since much of his discussion contains an important contribution to the historically specificity of capital, in that the heterogenous is not itself the research object, but only a problem statement for the theory of the entrepreneur. Says he,

For most purposes capital goods have to be used jointly. complementarity is of the essence of capital use. but the heterogenous capital resources do not lend themselves to combination in any arbitrary fashion. For any given number of them only certain modes of complementarity are technically possible, and only a few of these are economically significant. It is among the latter that the entrepreneur has to find the ‘optimum combination’.

for him, the true function of the entrepreneur must remain hidden as long as we disregard the heterogeneity of capital. But, Peter Lewin’s Capital in Disequilibrium reads Lachmann revealingly. What makes it possible for entrepreneurs to make production plans comprising numerous heterogenous capital goods is a combination of the market process and the institution of money and financial accounting. There, you can see Lachmann slipping into the historical territory. Says Lewin,

Planning within firms proceeds against the necessary backdrop of the market. Planning within firms can occur precisely because “the market” furnishes it with the necessary prices for the factor inputs that would be absent in a fullblown state ownership situation.

Based on these prices, the institution of monetary calculation allows entrepreneurs to calculate retrospective and prospective profits. The calculation of profits, Lewin states, is “indispensable in that it provides the basis for discrimination between viable and non-viable production projects.” The approach is not concerned with the heterogeneity of capital goods as such but, to the contrary, with the way these goods are made homogeneous so that entrepreneurs can make the calculations their production plans are based on. Without this homogeneity of capital goods in relation to the goal of the entrepreneur – making monetary profit – it would be difficult, if not impossible, to combine them in a meaningful way.

# Debt versus Equity Financing. Why the Difference matters?

There is a lot of confusion between debt and equity financing, though there is a clear line of demarcation as such. Whats even more sorry as a state of affair is these jargons being used pretty platitudinously, and this post tries to recover from any such usage now bordering on the colloquial, especially on the activists’s side of the camp.

What is Debt Financing?

Debt financing is a means of raising funds to generate working capital that is used to pay for projects or endeavors that the issuer of the debt wishes to undertake. The issuer may choose to issue bonds, promissory notes or other debt instruments as a means of financing the debt associated with the project. In return for purchasing the notes or bonds, the investor is provided with some type of return above and beyond the original amount of purchase.

Debt financing is very different from equity financing. With equity financing, revenue is generated by issuing shares of stock at a public offering. The shares remain active from the point of issue and will continue to generate returns for investors as long as the shares are held. By contrast, debt financing involves the use of debt instruments that are anticipated to be repaid in full within a given time frame.

With debt financing, the investor anticipates earning a return in the form of interest for a specified period of time. At the end of the life of a bond or note, the investor receives the full face value of the bond, including any interest that may have accrued. In some cases, bonds or notes may be structured to allow for periodic interest payments to investors throughout the life of the debt instrument.

For the issuer of the bonds or notes, debt financing is a great way to raise needed capital in a short period of time. Since it does not involve the issuing of shares of stock, there is a clear start and end date in mind for the debt. It is possible to project the amount of interest that will be repaid during the life of the bond and thus have a good idea of how to meet those obligations without causing undue hardship. Selling bonds is a common way of funding special projects, and is utilized by municipalities as well as many corporations.

Investors also benefit from debt financing. Since the bonds and notes are often set up with either a fixed rate of interest or a variable rate with a guarantee of a minimum interest rate, it is possible to project the return on the investment over the life of the bond. There is relatively little risk with this type of debt financing, so the investor does not have to be concerned about losing money on the deal. While the return may be somewhat modest, it is reliable. The low risk factor makes entering into a debt financing strategy very attractive for conservative investors.

What is Equity Financing?

Also known as share capital, equity financing is the strategy of generating funds for company projects by selling a limited amount of stock to investors. The financing may involve issuing shares of common stock or preferred stock. In addition, the shares may be sold to commercial or individual investors, depending on the type of shares involved and the governmental regulations that apply in the nation where the issuer is located. Both large and small business owners make use of this strategy when undertaking new company projects.

Equity financing is a means of raising the capital needed for some sort of company activity, such as the purchase of new equipment or the expansion of company locations or manufacturing facilities. The choice of which means of financing to use will often depend on the purpose that the business is pursuing, as well as the company’s current credit rating. With the strategy of equity financing, the expectation is that the project funded with the sale of the stock will eventually begin to turn a profit. At that point, the business not only is able to provide dividends to the shareholders who purchased the stock, but also realize profits that help to increase the financial stability of the company overall. In addition, there is no outstanding debt owed to a bank or other lending institution. The end result is that the company successfully funds the project without going into debt, and without the need to divert existing resources as a means of financing the project during its infancy.

While equity financing is an option that is often ideal for funding new projects, there are situations where looking into debt financing is in the best interests of the company. Should the project be anticipated to yield a return in a very short period of time, the company may find that obtaining loans at competitive interest rates is a better choice. This is especially true if this option makes it possible to launch the project sooner rather than later, and take advantage of favorable market conditions that increase the projected profits significantly. The choice between equity financing and debt financing may also involve considering different outcomes for the project. By considering how the company would be affected if the project fails, as well as considering the fortunes of the company if the project is successful, it is often easier to determine which financing alternative will serve the interests of the business over the long-term.

In summation, equity financing is the technique for raising capital organization stock to speculators whereas debt financing is the technique of raising capital by borrowing. Equity financing is offered forms like gained capital or revenue while debt financing is available in form of loan. Equity financing involves high risk as compare to debt financing. Equity holders have security but debt holders don’t have. In equity financing, entrepreneurs don’t need to channel benefits into credit reimbursement while in debt financing, entrepreneurs’ have to channel profit into repayment of loans.